With the issue of #MaritalRape getting centre stage in many debates on tv channels and print media, the big questions are still left unanswered in this issue or otherwise #Rape in general.. >> If the definition of rape is sex by force and without consent then why it is been considered always as a crime which can be committed by a man with woman not otherwise or vice-versa? >> Why in all law-books the punishment is only defined under all the legal sections for the act of penetration by force but never for the act of forced to penetrate? >> Why the right of giving consent in sexual relationships is only been entrusted upon a specific gender (women) while other gender (men) is left with no option but considered as have given a consent in all situations inherently perceived? >> What is the legal protection available with a man when he is been raped by a woman inside or outside the marriage with the definition of rape remain same and specific i.e. sex without consent which is rather can be equally applied in case of all the genders without any discrimination before the law? >> With the definition of consent been left so ambiguous and uncertain, how it is to be proved that charge of rape is not a rape but in actual a consent given first but been foul cried rape later due to one another reasons or malafide intentions, with also a clear procedure been defined that how and by which means the consent is to be recorded between the two consenting individuals of proper age when entering in a sexual relationship in that charged moment of time? #Kanwal
by अहं सत्य
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